Chapter 28 Test Bank.docx

Chapter 28 Test Bank - Static Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ Multiple Choice Questions 1. The CFA Institute divides the process of portfolio management into three main elements, which are ______, ______, and ______. A. planning; execution; results B. security selection; asset allocation; action C. planning; asset allocation; feedback D. planning; execution; feedback E. risk tolerance; feedback; action 2. The planning phase of the CFA Institute's investment management process A. uses data about the client and capital market. B. uses details of optimal asset allocation and security selection. C. uses changes in expectations and objectives. D. All of the options are correct. E. None of the options are correct. 3. The execution phase of the CFA Institute's investment management process A. uses data about the client and capital market. B. uses details of optimal asset allocation and security selection. C. uses changes in expectations and objectives. D. All of the options are correct. E. None of the options are correct. 4. The feedback phase of the CFA Institute's investment management process A. uses data about the client and capital market. B. uses details of optimal asset allocation and security selection. C. uses changes in expectations and objectives. D. All of the options are correct. E. None of the options are correct. 5. __________ refer to strategies aimed at attaining the established rate of return requirements while meeting expressed risk tolerance and applicable constraints. A. Investment constraints B. Investment objectives C. Investment policies D. All of the options are correct. E. None of the options are correct. 6. One incorrect belief that is often cited as a reason for fully funded pension funds to invest in equities is A. stocks have higher risk. B. bonds have lower returns. C. stocks provide a hedge against inflation. D. stocks have higher returns. E. All of the options are incorrect beliefs that are often cited. 7. __________ in the process of asset allocation. A. Deriving the efficient portfolio frontier is a step B. Specifying asset classes to be included in the portfolio is a step C. Specifying the capital market expectations is a step D. All of the options are steps. E. None of the options are steps. 8. Questionnaires and attitude surveys suggest that risk tolerance A. increases with age. B. decreases with age. C. stays constant over the life cycle for most investors. D. cannot be assessed. E. None of the options are correct. 9. __________ can be used to create a perfect inflation hedge. A. Gold B. Real estate C. TIPS D. The S&P 500 Index E. None of the options are correct. 10. A fully funded pension plan can invest surplus assets in equities provided it reduces the proportion in equities when the value of the fund drops near the accumulated benefit obligation. This strategy is referred to as A. immunization. B. hedging. C. diversification. D. contingent immunization. E. overfunding. 11. Workers who change jobs may wind up with lower pension benefits at retirement than otherwise identical workers who stay with the same employer, even if the employers have defined benefit plans with the same final pay benefit formula. This is referred to as A. an accumulated benefit obligation. B. an unfunded liability. C. immunization. D. indexation. E. the portability problem. 12. The __________ the proportion of total return that is in the form of price appreciation, the __________ will be the value of the tax deferral option for taxable investors. A. greater; greater B. greater; lower C. lower; greater D. The answer cannot be determined from the information provided. E. None of the options are correct. 13. An important benefit of Keogh plans is that A. they are not taxable until funds are withdrawn as benefits. B. they are protected against inflation. C. they are automatically insured by the Federal government. D. they are not taxable until funds are withdrawn as benefits, and they are protected against inflation. E. they are not taxable until funds are withdrawn as benefits, and they are automatically insured by the Federal government. 14. Variable life insurance A. combines life insurance with a tax deferred annuity. B. provides a minimum death benefit that increases subject to investment performance. C. can be converted to a stream of income. D. All of the options are correct. E. None of the options are correct. 15. Endowment funds are held by A. charitable organizations. B. educational institutions. C. for profit firms. D. charitable organizations and educational institutions. E. educational institutions and for profit firms. 16. __________ center on the trade off between the return the investor wants and how much risk the investor is willing to assume. A. Investment constraints B. Investment objectives C. Investment policies D. All of the options are correct. E. None of the options are correct. 17. The stage an individual is in his/her life cycle will affect his/her A. return requirements. B. risk tolerance. C. asset allocation. D. return requirements and risk tolerance. E. All of the options are correct. 18. A remainderman is A. a stockbroker who remained working on Wall Street after the 1987 crash. B. an employee of a trustee. C. one who receives interest and dividend income from a trust during their lifetime. D. one who receives the principal of a trust when it is dissolved. 19. __________ are boundaries that investors place on their choice of investment assets. A. Investment constraints B. Investment objectives C. Investment policies D. All of the options are correct E. None of the options are correct. 20. The investment horizon is A. the investor's expected age at death. B. the starting date for establishing investment constraints. C. based on the investor's risk tolerance. D. the date at which the portfolio is expected to be fully or partially liquidated. 21. Liquidity is A. the ease with which an asset can be sold. B. the ability to sell an asset for a fair price. C. the degree of inflation protection an asset provides. D. the ease with which an asset can be sold and the ability to sell an asset for a fair price. E. All of the options are correct. 22. The objectives of personal trusts normally are __________ in scope than those of individual investors, and personal trust managers typically are __________ than individual investors. A. broader; more risk averse B. broader; less risk averse C. more limited; more risk averse D. more limited; less risk averse 23. When a company sets up a defined contribution pension plan, the __________ bears all the risk, and the __________ receives all the return from the plan's assets. A. employee; employee B. employee; employer C. employer; employee D. employer; employer E. Cannot determine; depends on the economic environment. 24. Suppose that the pre tax holding period returns on two stocks are the same. Stock A has a high dividend payout policy and stock B has a low dividend payout policy. If you are an individual in a high marginal tax bracket and do not intend to sell the stocks during the holding period, A. stock A will have a higher after tax holding period return than stock B. B. the after tax holding period returns on stocks A and B will be the same. C. stock B will have a higher after tax holding period return than stock A. D. it is impossible to determine which stock will have a higher after tax holding period return given the information available. 25. The prudent investor rule requires A. executives of companies to avoid investing in options of companies by which they are employed. B. executives of companies to disclose their transactions in stocks of companies by which they are employed. C. professional investors who manage money for others to avoid all risky investments. D. professional investors who manage money for others to constrain their investments to those that would have been approved by the prudent investor. 26. The longest time horizons are likely to be set by A. banks. B. property and casualty insurance companies. C. pension funds. D. banks and pension funds. E. property and casualty insurance companies and pension funds. 27. The longest time horizons are likely to be set by A. banks. B. property and casualty insurance companies. C. endowment funds. D. banks and endowment funds. E. property and casualty insurance companies and endowment funds. 28. The shortest time horizons are likely to be set by A. banks. B. property and casualty insurance companies. C. pension funds. D. banks and property and casualty insurance companies. E. property and casualty insurance companies and pension funds. 29. Institutional investors will rarely invest in which of these asset classes? A. Bonds B. Stocks C. Cash D. Real estate E. Precious metals 30. For an individual investor, the value of home ownership is likely to be viewed A. as a hedge against increases in rental rates. B. as a guarantee of availability of a particular residence. C. as a hedge against inflation. D. as a hedge against increases in rental rates and as a guarantee of availability of a particular residence. E. All of the options are correct. 31. Assume that at retirement you have accumulated $500,000 in a variable annuity contract. The assumed investment return is 6%, and your life expectancy is 15 years. What is the hypothetical constant benefit payment? A. $30,000.00 B. $33,333.33 C. $51,481.38 D. $52,452.73 E. The answer cannot be determined from the information provided. 32. Assume that at retirement you have accumulated $500,000 in a variable annuity contract. The assumed investment return is 6%, and your life expectancy is 15 years. If the first year's actual investment return is 8%, what is the starting benefit payment? A. $30,000.00 B. $33,333.33 C. $51,481.38 D. $52,452.73 E. The answer cannot be determined from the information provided. 33. The first step a pension fund should take before beginning to invest is to A. establish investment objectives. B. develop a list of investment managers with superior records to interview. C. establish asset allocation guidelines. D. decide between active and passive management. 34. General pension funds typically invest __________ of their funds in equity securities. A. none B. 5 10% C. 15 35% D. 40 60% E. more than 60% 35. The optimal portfolio on the efficient frontier for a given investor depends on A. the investor's degree of risk tolerance. B. the coefficient, A, which is a measure of risk aversion. C. the investor's required rate of return. D. the investor's degree of risk tolerance and the investor's required rate of return. E. the investor's degree of risk tolerance and the coefficient, A, which is a measure of risk aversion. 36. The optimal portfolio on the efficient frontier for a given investor does not depend on A. the investor's degree of risk tolerance. B. the coefficient, A, which is a measure of risk aversion. C. the investor's required rate of return. D. the investor's degree of risk tolerance and the investor's required rate of return. E. the investor's degree of risk tolerance and the coefficient, A, which is a measure of risk aversion. 37. Target date retirement funds are not A. funds of funds diversified across stocks and bonds. B. designed to change their asset allocation as time passes. C. a simple, but useful, strategy. D. designed to function much like hedge funds. 38. A ___________ is established when an individual confers legal title to property to another person or institution to manage the property for one or more beneficiaries. A. tax shelter B. defined contribution plan C. personal trust D. fixed annuity E. Keogh plan 39. Professional financial planners should A. assess their client's risk and return requirements on a one time basis. B. explain the investment plan to the client. C. inform the client about the outcome of the plan. D. assess their client's risk and return requirements on a one time basis, explain the investment plan to the client, and inform the client about the outcome of the plan. E. explain the investment plan to the client and inform the client about the outcome of the plan. 40. Deferral of capital gains tax I) means that the investor doesn't need to pay taxes until the investment is sold. II) allows the investment to grow at a faster rate. III) means that you might escape the capital gains tax if you live long enough. IV) provides a tax shelter for investors. A. II and III B. I, II, IV C. I, III, and V D. II, III, and IV 41. Deferral of capital gains tax does not I) mean that the investor doesn't need to pay taxes until the investment is sold. II) allow the investment to grow at a faster rate. III) mean that you might escape the capital gains tax if you live long enough. IV) provide a tax shelter for investors. A. III B. II C. I, II, and V D. II, III, and IV 42. Which of the following investments does not allow the investor to choose how to allocate assets? A. Variable Life insurance policies B. Keogh plans C. Personal funds D. Tax qualified defined contribution plans E. Universal Life policies 43. Which of the following investments allows the investor to choose how to allocate assets? A. Variable Life insurance policies B. Keogh plans C. Personal funds D. Tax qualified defined contribution plans E. All of the options are correct. 44. Pension funds I) accept contributions from employers, which are tax deductible. II) pay distributions that are taxed as ordinary income. III) pay benefits only from the income component of the fund. IV) accept contributions from employees, which are not tax deductible. A. I and IV B. II and III C. I and II D. I, II, and IV E. I, II, III, and IV 45. Pension funds do not I) accept contributions from employers, which are tax deductible. II) pay distributions that are taxed as ordinary income. III) pay benefits only from the income component of the fund. IV) accept contributions from employees, which are not tax deductible. A. III and IV B. II and III C. I and II D. I, II, and IV E. I, II, III, and IV 46. Stephanie Watson is 23 years old and has accumulated $4,000 in her self directed defined contribution pens