2014
年高
英语
新课
解析
2014年全国统一高考英语试卷(新课标Ⅱ)
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)
第一节 (共15小题;每小题2分,满分40分)
阅读下列列短文,从每题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中,选出最佳选项。并在答题卡上将该选项涂黑。
A
Arriving in Sydney on his own from India, my husband, Rashid, stayed in a hotel for a short time while looking for a short time while looking for a house for me and our children.
During the first week of his stay, he went out one day to do some shopping. He came back in the late afternoon to discover that his suitcase was gone. He was extremely worried as the suitcase had all his important papers, including his passport.
He reported the case to the police and then sat there, lost and lonely in strange city, thinking of the terrible troubles of getting all the paperwork organized again from a distant country while trying to settle down in a new one.
Late in the evening, the phone rang. It was a stranger. He was trying to pronounce my husband’s name and was asking him a lot of questions. Then he said they had found a pile of papers in their trash can(垃圾桶)that had been left out on the footpath.
My husband rushed to their home to find a kind family holding all his papers and documents. Their young daughter had gone to the trash can and found a pile of unfamiliar papers. Her parents had carefully sorted them out, although they had found mainly foreign addresses on most of the documents. At last they had seen a half-written letter in the pile in which my husband had given his new telephone number to a friend.
That family not only restored the important documents to us that day but also restored our faith and trust in people. We still remember their kindness and often send a warm wish their way.
21. What did Rashid plan to do after his arrival in Sydney?
A. Go shopping B. Find a house C. Join his family D. Take his family
22. The girl’s parents got Rashid’s phone number from .
A. a friend of his family B. a Sydney policeman
C. a letter in his papers D. a stranger in Sydney
23. What does the underlined word “restored” in the last paragraph mean?
A. Showed B. Sent out C. Delivered D. Gave back
24. Which of the following can be the best title for the text?
A. From India to Australia. B. Living in a a New Country.
C. Turning Trash to Treasure. D. In Search of New Friends.
B
Since the first Earth Day in 1970, American have gotten a lot “greener” toward the environment. “We didn’t know at that time there even was an environment, let alone that there was a problem with it,” says Bruce Anderson, president of Earth Day USA.
But what began as nothing important in public affairs has grown into a social movement. Business people, political leaders, university professors, and especially millions of grass-roots Americans are taking part in the movement. “The understanding has increased many, many times,” says Gaylord Nelson, the former governor from Wisconsin, who thought up the first According to US government reports, emissions (排放) from cars and trucks have dropped from 10.3 million tons a year to 5.5 tons. The number of cities producing CO beyond the standard has been reduced from 40 to 9. Although serious problems still remain and need to be dealt with, the world is a safer and healthier place. A kind of “Green thinking” has become part of practices.
Great improvement has been achieved. In 1988 there were only 600 recycling programs; today in 1995 there are about 6,600. Advanced lights, motors, and building designs have helped save a lot of energy and therefore prevented pollution.
Twenty-five years ago, there were hardly any education programs for environment. Today, it’s hard to find a public school, university, or law school that does not have such a kind of program.” Until we do that, nothing else will change!” say Bruce Anderson.
25. According to Anderson, before 1970, Americans had little idea about .
A. the social movement B. recycling techniques
C. environmental problems D. the importance of Earth Day
26. Where does the support for environmental protection mainly come from?
A. The grass-roots level B. The business circle
C. Government officials D. University professors
27. What have Americans achieved in environmental protection?
A. They have cut car emissions to the lowest.
B. They have settled their environmental problems.
C. They have lowered their CO levels in forty cities.
D. They have reduced pollution through effective measures.
28. What is especially important for environmental protection according to the last paragraph?
A. Education B. Planning C. Green living D. CO reduction
C
One of the latest trend(趋势)in American Childcare is Chinese au pairs. Au Pair in Stamford, for example, has got increasing numbers of request for Chinese au pairs from aero to around 4,000 since 2004. And that’s true all across the country.
“I thought it would be useful for him to learn Chinese at an early age” Joseph Stocke, the managing director of s company, says of his 2-year-old son. “I would at least like to give him the chance to use the language in the future.” After only six months of being cared by 25-year-old woman from China, the boy can already understand basic Chinese daily expressions, his dad says.
Li Drake, a Chinese native raising two children in Minnesota with an American husband, had another reason for looking for an au pair from China. She didn’t want her children to miss out on their roots. “Because I am Chinese, my husband and I wanted the children to keep exposed to (接触) the language and culture.” she says.
“Staying with a native speaker is better for children than simply sitting in a classroom,” says Suzanne Flynn, a professor in language education of Children. “But parents must understand that just one year with au pair is unlikely to produce wonders. Complete mastery demands continued learning until the age of 10 or 12.”
The popularity if au pairs from China has been strengthened by the increasing numbers of American parents who want their children who want their children to learn Chinese. It is expected that American demand for au pairs will continue to rise in the next few years.
29. What does that term “au pair” in the text mean?
A. A mother raising her children on her own.
B. A child learning a foreign language at home.
C. A professor in language education of children.
D. A young foreign woman taking care of children.
30. Li Drake has her children study Chinese because she wants them .
A. to live in China some day B. to speak the language at home
C. to catch up wit other children D. to learn about the Chinese culture
31. What can we infer from the text?
A. Learning Chinese is becoming popular in America.
B. Educated woman do better in looking after children.
C. Chinese au pairs need to improve their English Skills.
D. Children can learn a foreign language well in six months.
D
Metro Pocket Guide
Metrorail (地铁)
Each passenger needs a farecard to enter and go out. Up to two children under age five may travel free with a paying customer.
Farecard machines are in every station. Bring small bills because there are no change machines in the stations and farecard machines only provide up to $5 in change.
Get one ticket of unlimited Metrorall rides with a One Day Pass. Buy it from a farecard machine in Metro stations. Use it after 9:30 a.m. until closing on weekdays, and all day on weekends and holidays.
Hours of service
Open: 5a.m. Mon.---Fri. 7a.m. Sat.---Sun.
Close: midnight Sun.---Thur. 3a.m. Fri.---Sat. nights
Last train times vary. To avoid missing the last train, please check the last train time posted in the station.
Metrobus
When paying with exact charge, the fare is $1.35. When paying with a SmarTripⓇ card, the fare is $1.25.
Fares for the senior/ disabled customers
Senior citizens 65 and older and disabled customers may ride for half the regular fare. On Metrorail and Metrobus, use a senior/disabled farecard or SmarTripⓇ card. For more information about buying senior/disabled farecards, farecard or SmarTripⓇ cards and passes, please visit MetroOpensD or call 202-637-7000 and 202-637-8000.
Senior citizens and disabled customers can get free guide on how to use proper Metrobus and Metrorall services by calling 202-962-1100.
Travel tips (提示)
•Avoid riding during weekday rush periods---before 9:30 a.m. and between 4 and 6 p.m.
•If you lose something on a bus or train or in a station, please call Lost & Found at 202-962-1195.
32. What should you know about farecard machines?
A. They start selling tickets at 9:30 a.m.
B. They are connected to change machines.
C. They offer special service to the elderly.
D. They make change for no more than $5.
33. At what time does Metrorail stop service on Saturday?
A. At midnight B. at 3 a.m. C. at 5 a.m. D.at 7 p.m.
34. What is good about a SmarTrip® card?
A. It is convenient for old people. B. It saves money for its users.
C. it can be bought at any time. D. it is sold on the Internet.
35. Which number should you call if you lose something on the Metro?
A. 202-962-1195 B. 202-962-1100 C. 202-673-7000 D. 202-673-8000
第二节(共5小题:每小题2分,满分10分)
根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Tips for cooking on a Tight Schedule
From my experience, there are three main reasons why people don’t cook more often: ability, money and time, 36 Money is a topic I’ll save for another day. So today I want to give you some wisdom about how to make the most of the time you spend in the kitchen. Here are three tips for great cooking on a tight schedule:
①Think ahead. The moments when I think cooking is a pain are when I’m already hungry and there is nothing ready to eat. So think about of the coming week. When will you have time to cook? Do you have the right materials ready? 37
②Make your time worth it. When you do find time to cook a meal, make the most of it and save yourself time later on. Are you making one loaf of bread? 38 it takes around the same amount of time to make more of something. So save yourself the effort for a future meal.
③ 39 This may surprise you, but one of the best tools for making cooking worth your time is experimentation. It gives you the chance to hit upon new ideas and recipes that can work well with your appetite and schedule. The more you learn and the more you try, the more ability you have to take control of your food and your schedule.
Hopefully that gives you a good start. 40 and don’t let a busy schedule discourage you from making some great changes in the way you eat and live!
A. Try new things
B. Ability is easily improved
C. Make three or four instead
D. Understand your food better
E. Cooking is a burden for many people
F. Let cooking and living simply be a joy rather than a burden
G. A little time planning ahead can save a lot of work later on
第三部分 英语知识运用(共两节,满分45分)
第一节 完形填空(共20小题;每题1.5分,满分30分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的四个选项(A,B,C和D)中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
Joe Simpson and Simon Yates were the first people to climb the West Face of the Siula Grande in the Andes mountains. They reached the top 41 , but on their way back conditions were very 42 . Joe fell and broke his leg. They both knew that if Simon 43 alone, he would probably get back 44 . But Simon decided to risk his 45 and try to lower Joe down the mountain on a rope(绳).
As they 46 down, the weather got worse. Then another 47 occurred. They couldn’t see or hear each other and, 48 , Simon lowered his friend over the edge of a precipice(峭壁). It was 49 for Joe to climb back or for Simon to pull him up. Joe’s 50 was pulling Simon slowly towards the precipice. 51 , after more than an hour in the dark and the icy cold, Simon had to 52 . In tears, he cut the rope. Joe 53 into a large crevasse(裂缝)in the ice below. He had no food or water and he was in terrible pain. He couldn’t walk, but he 54 to get out of the crevasse and started to 55 towards their camp, nearly ten kilometers 56 .
Simon had 57 the camp at the foot of the mountain. He thought that Joe must be 58 , but he didn’t want to leave 59 . Three days later, in the middle of the night, he heard Joe’s voice. He couldn’t 60 it. Joe was there, a few meters from their tent, still alive.
41. A. hurriedly
B. carefully
C. successfully
D. early
42. A. difficult
B. similar
C. special
D. normal
43. A. climbed
B. worked
C. rested
D. continued
44. A. unwillingly
B. safely
C. slowly
D. regretfully
45. A. fortune
B. time
C. health
D. life
46. A. lay
B. settled
C. went
D. looked
47. A. damage
B. storm
C. change
D. trouble
48. A. by mistake
B. by chance
C. by chance
D. by luck
49. A. unnecessary
B. practical
C. important
D. impossible
50. A. height
B. weight
C. strength
D. equipment
51. A. Finally
B. Patiently
C. Surely
D. Quickly
52. A. stand back
B. take a rest
C. make a decision
D. hold on
53. A. jumped
B. fell
C. escaped
D. backed
54. A. managed
B. planned
C. waited
D. hoped
55. A. run
B. skate
C. move
D. march
56. A. around
B. away
C. above
D. along
57. A. headed for
B. travelled
C. left for
D. returned to
58. A. dead
B. hurt
C. weak
D. late
59. A. secretly
B. tiredly
C. immediately
D. anxiously
60. A.find
B. believe
C. make
D. accept
第二节(共10小题:每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面材料,在空白处填入适当的内容(不多于3个单词)或括号内单词的正确形式。
One morning, I was waiting at the bus stop, worried about 61 (be) late for school. There were many people waiting at the bus stop, 62 some of them looked very anxious and 63 (disappoint). When the bus finally came, we all hurried on board. I got a place next 64 the window, so I had a good view of the sidewalk. A boy on a bike 65 (catch)my attention. He was riding beside the bus and waving his arms. I heard a passenger behind me shouting to the driver, but he refused 66 (stop)until we reached the next stop. Still, the boy kept 67 (ride). He was carrying something over his shoulder and shouting. Finally, when we came to the next stop, the boy ran up to the door of the bus. I heard an excited conversation. Then the driver stood up and asked, “ 68 anyone lose a suitcase at the last stop?” A woman on the bus shouted, “Oh, dear! It’s 69 (I).” She pushed her way to the driver and took the suitcase thankfully. Everyone on the bus began talking about what the boy had done, and the crowd of strangers 70 (sudden)
became friendly to one another.
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分35分)
第一节 短文改错(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文,请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处错误,每句中最多有两处,每处仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
增加:在缺词处加一个漏字符号(^),并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除:把多余的词用斜线(\)划掉。
注意:1. 每处错误及其修改均仅限一词;
2. 只允许修改10处,多者(从第11处起)不计分。
My dream school starts at 8:30 a.m. and ends at 3:30 p.m. They are three lessons in the morning and two in the afternoon. We didn’t nee